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B3 Qualification Rules

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From: Thijs

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42032.24 in reply to 42032.22
Date: 8/11/2008 6:02:35 AM
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If there is 2 two differents teams, then 2 qualified, if the winner is the same team, then only one qualified team.


I think every country should have 2 representatives in B3, exept for 1: the country with the current cup holder may send 3 teams (B3 winner, league winner and cup winner).

And as B3 has a knock out system, I feel that real cup fighters should have a chance to compete. So if League champ and cup winner are the same in a country, allow the cup runner up to compete in B3 rather then the league runner up.



From: zisvan

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42032.25 in reply to 42032.24
Date: 8/11/2008 6:44:27 AM
Overall Posts Rated:
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I agree with one thing: last B3's winner should be automaticcaly qualified [;)]

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42032.26 in reply to 42032.16
Date: 8/11/2008 8:10:03 AM
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225225
First of all, it is currently a standard practice in a number of European competitions.


Yeah, but except the champion and a Cup runner-up, the best 3 or 4 clubs from the first league goes to European club competitions...

That doesn't really matter. The point is that when a team gains eligibility through both the Cup and the league, it is the next best team in the Cup that is also qualified, not the next best team in the league.

"I don't know half of you half as well as I should like; and I like less than half of you half as well as you deserve."
From: Rambo

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42032.27 in reply to 42032.10
Date: 8/11/2008 8:24:27 AM
New York Jests
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I agree with the solution of having the cup runner up play but the logic you used is no more suited for the cup as it is for the league. The second best team is not guaranteed to be the other team in the finals. Imagine if the 2nd best team played the eventual champion in the first round?

From: raonne

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42032.28 in reply to 42032.27
Date: 8/11/2008 9:19:01 AM
Overall Posts Rated:
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I agree with the solution of having the cup runner up play but the logic you used is no more suited for the cup as it is for the league. The second best team is not guaranteed to be the other team in the finals. Imagine if the 2nd best team played the eventual champion in the first round?

The thing is that the pool for runner-up in the cup is much bigger, includes everyone. In the final of the Cup teams can come from anywhere, while the runner-up of the league comes from a pool that doesn't even include all teams in that league, because of the conference format of the playoffs.

To the others: Anyway, I don't think a country should be punished for having the same team winning both tournaments. So we definitely should have 2 teams for each country. Why should Italy have an advantage over Portugal, Brasil, USA and Canada (for example)? No, does not make sense. Two teams per country is a must. Cup runner-up is simply the best solution, but the important thing is that each country has 2 spots.

Last edited by raonne at 8/11/2008 9:20:27 AM

From: Pieriku

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42032.29 in reply to 42032.15
Date: 8/11/2008 9:30:05 AM
Olympus Team
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Yeah right, and the Champions League is filled with just the national league soccer champions of Europe and none of them became champs undeserved.... If B3 is only for the best teams in the world, why invite teams from, lets say Equator and Dominican Republic (no offense)? I think the current method of league champions and cup winners/runners up is a fair one. If you have made it all the way thru the knock out systeem only to lose against the national champion (to be), you must have a pretty decent team...


That's exactly the reason why I don't like the Champions' League and why I much prefered the former Champions' Cup.

From: Pieriku

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42032.30 in reply to 42032.25
Date: 8/11/2008 9:32:48 AM
Olympus Team
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Overall Posts Rated:
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I agree with one thing: last B3's winner should be automaticcaly qualified [;)]


Yes, because he won a tough competition with his team. It's possible that he priviligiated this competition to the League and the Cup.

From: Pieriku

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42032.31 in reply to 42032.28
Date: 8/11/2008 9:35:50 AM
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To the others: Anyway, I don't think a country should be punished for having the same team winning both tournaments. So we definitely should have 2 teams for each country. Why should Italy have an advantage over Portugal, Brasil, USA and Canada (for example)? No, does not make sense. Two teams per country is a must. Cup runner-up is simply the best solution, but the important thing is that each country has 2 spots.


I would not consider France (my country) as being punished if there was only one team qualified to the BBB. He won the Cup and the League, therefore he is the only team that deserves to qualify to this competition.

From: raonne

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42032.33 in reply to 42032.31
Date: 8/11/2008 9:39:26 AM
Overall Posts Rated:
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I would not consider France (my country) as being punished if there was only one team qualified to the BBB. He won the Cup and the League, therefore he is the only team that deserves to qualify to this competition.

Well, that is your opinion. In the meanwhile we have several other people in other leagues that feel as being punished or that this is unfair. I won both League and Cup in my country and I agree with them.

From: Pieriku

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42032.34 in reply to 42032.33
Date: 8/11/2008 10:10:27 AM
Olympus Team
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Overall Posts Rated:
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Isn't BBB signifying Buzzerbeater's Best of the Best ? Therefore, you are the best team in your country. The runner ups aren't.
In a country where two different teams won the Cup and the League, both can pretend to be the best because they can say that they priviligiated one competition to the other, therefore, that's natural that both go to a competition that is to determine who has the best team in the world.
If a single team won both titles, there is no other team that can pretend being the best of the country and deserve to represent it on the international scale.

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